Lecture 20

[[lecture-data]]

2024-10-14

Readings

7. Chapter 7

Recall from singular value decomposition we have that for any matrix A∈Mm,n with m≤n

A=UΣW

for some U∈Mm unitary, Σ∈Mm diagonal, and W∈Mm,n with orthogonal columns. Recall that we call the entries of Σ the singular values

Note

The values in Σ for A=UΣW are uniquely determined.

Proof

AA∗=UΣWW∗Σ∗U∗ and so the eigenvalues of AA∗ are the diagonal entries of ΣΣ∗.

Theorem (Singular Value Decomposition)

For any A∈Mm,n, there exists U∈Mm, V∈Mn both unitary and Σ∈Mm,n "diagonal" with min{m,n} real, nonnegative, nonincreasing, entries such that

A=UΣV∗

Further, if A is real-valued, we can take each of U,Σ,V to be real.

(we take "diagonal" to mean that the only entries that can be nonzero have the same row and column index)

Note

  • We can think of this as a generalization of diagonalization/spectral decomposition, but where the loss is that U and V are distinct.
  • if A is positive semidefinite, then the diagonalization is the singular value decomposition since we have that A=UΣU∗ for some unitary U and nonnegative Σ all real.

Proof

If m≤n, then by the previous definition here we have A=UΣW where U∈Mn unitary, Σ∈Mm diagonal, and W∈Mm,n with orthogonal columns. Since m≤n, we add n−m columns of zeros to Σ to make it size m×n. Then we can append n−m orthogonal rows to W with Gram-Schmidt to get a V∗

If n>m, then A∗=UΣV∗ is SVD by the above case. But then A=VΣTU∗ is an SVD of A!

(see singular value decomposition)

Corollary - Polar Decomposition

For all A∈Mn, there exists a hermitian, positive semidefinite P∈Mn and a W∈Mn unitary such that

A=PW
Proof

When n=1, we can write a=αeiθ where α is a PSD 1x1 matrix and eiθ is some unitary matrix (it is a complex number with modulus 1!).

Let A=UΣV∗ be its singular value decomposition. Then

A=UΣU∗UV∗=(UΣU∗)(UV∗)=PW

(see polar decomposition)

Notes on SVD

Say A∈Mm,n and A∈UΣV∗ its SVD. Suppose there are k non-negative singular values call them σ1,…,σk. Denote u1,…um the columns of U and v1∗,…,vn∗ the rows of V∗. Then

  1. A=UΣV∗=∑i=1kσiuivi∗
  2. rank(A)=rank(Σ)=k
  3. range(A)=span{u1,…,uk} - easy to see from (1)
  4. null(A)=span(vk+1,…,vn) - easy to see from (1)
  5. range(A∗)=span{v1,…,vk}
  6. null(A∗)=span{uk+1,…,um}
  7. For any A∈Mm,n, we have ||A||2,2:=maxx∈Cn≠0||Ax||2||x||2=σ1
  8. ||A||F2=||UΣV∗||F2=||Σ||F2=∑i=1kσi

To see (5) and (6) , recall that A∗=VΣTU∗ and we simply apply (3) and (4) in this case.

To see (7), note that

||A||2,22=maxx≠0||Ax||2||x||2=maxx∗A∗Axx∗x=∗,∗∗σ12
  • Note ∗ is by Rayleigh-Ritz that this equals the largest eigenvalue of A∗A.
  • Then ∗∗ is by the fact that the eigenvalues of A∗A=(UΣV∗)∗(UΣV∗)=VΣΣ∗V∗ - ie the eigenvalues are the squared singular values of A.

recall that range(A)={x:Ay=x}

Generalized Inverse

Let A∈Mm,n and B∈Mn,m. Let C={1,2,3,4}. Then B is a generalized inverse of A precisely when

For each i∈C, we call B an "i-generalized inverse"

  • if B satisfies 1, 2, then B is a 1-2-generalized inverse
Note

If A is invertible, then B is a 1-2-3-4-generalized inverse.

Note

0 is a 2-3-4 generalized inverse for every matrix...

Note

If B is a 1-3 for A, then A is a 2-4 for B.

(see generalized inverse)

Proposition

Consider Ax=b. If A is invertible, then x=A−1b 🙂

But if A is not square? What do we do? Suppose B is a 1-generalized inverse of A.

Let A∈Mm,n,b∈Cm, and suppose B is a 1-generalized inverse of A. Then if Ax=b is consistent, then x=Bb is a solution.

Proof

Say Az=b ie there is a solution for some z∈Cn. Then

A(Bb)=ABAz=Az=b

(see 1-generalized inverses give solutions to consistent linear systems)